I'm considering a couple of different subs for my upcoming build. This one is currently the forerunner because I like how flat it is in the lower region: https://www.scan-speak.dk/datasheet/pdf/32w-4878t01.pdf
My thinking is that it might sound more "musical" (whatever that means) than it's brother: https://www.scan-speak.dk/datasheet/pdf/32w-4878t00.pdf (opinions welcome, please). I say this because I only need it to play to 40Hz (I don't have music lower than that - I measured it!) and the curve is flatter in the pdf (maybe this doesn't matter by the time it goes into a box?).
However, I'm curious about the SPL graphs, particularly with regard to the fact that the 32w-4878t01 model seems to graph (in the pdf) with an f3 below the vented box modelling (also referenced in the pdf). I wonder if the mechanics of it just work better with the way they have them set up to generate the graphs (in which case, why not use those to generate the stats?), or if there's something else going on here. Also the impedance peaks don't match the resonant frequencies of the respective speakers in ScanSpeak's SPL graphs across many of their drivers - it's my understanding that the peak impedance is at res frequency.
I don't really know what my question is to the forum, but my gut-o-meter is telling me that either something's wrong or there's (likely) a bunch of things that I don't know that I should in deciding how each of the two options will sound.
I'm keen to hear people's opinions, thoughts, experiences and scientific knowledge to help set me straight.
Actually, I do have another question in this region: In the case of the driver with the slope from 100hz down (https://www.scan-speak.dk/datasheet/pdf/32w-4878t00.pdf), if that's in a vented box tuned to an f3 of 21Hz, my modelling software infers that it will be flat from 100Hz to (say) 30Hz then roll down from there. How does that translate to reality. Will the actual curve slope from 100 steadily down to 21Hz @-3db or will it play flat until it gets closer to the f3 frequency? Maybe I need to model above a flat line to account for the same db drop in the curve in the pdf?
Sorry if that's all a bit rambly. I'm just trying to get this clearer in my head, so I'm vocalising thoughts a bit here. I realise there's a lot to cover in this one post.
Thanks
My thinking is that it might sound more "musical" (whatever that means) than it's brother: https://www.scan-speak.dk/datasheet/pdf/32w-4878t00.pdf (opinions welcome, please). I say this because I only need it to play to 40Hz (I don't have music lower than that - I measured it!) and the curve is flatter in the pdf (maybe this doesn't matter by the time it goes into a box?).
However, I'm curious about the SPL graphs, particularly with regard to the fact that the 32w-4878t01 model seems to graph (in the pdf) with an f3 below the vented box modelling (also referenced in the pdf). I wonder if the mechanics of it just work better with the way they have them set up to generate the graphs (in which case, why not use those to generate the stats?), or if there's something else going on here. Also the impedance peaks don't match the resonant frequencies of the respective speakers in ScanSpeak's SPL graphs across many of their drivers - it's my understanding that the peak impedance is at res frequency.
I don't really know what my question is to the forum, but my gut-o-meter is telling me that either something's wrong or there's (likely) a bunch of things that I don't know that I should in deciding how each of the two options will sound.
I'm keen to hear people's opinions, thoughts, experiences and scientific knowledge to help set me straight.
Actually, I do have another question in this region: In the case of the driver with the slope from 100hz down (https://www.scan-speak.dk/datasheet/pdf/32w-4878t00.pdf), if that's in a vented box tuned to an f3 of 21Hz, my modelling software infers that it will be flat from 100Hz to (say) 30Hz then roll down from there. How does that translate to reality. Will the actual curve slope from 100 steadily down to 21Hz @-3db or will it play flat until it gets closer to the f3 frequency? Maybe I need to model above a flat line to account for the same db drop in the curve in the pdf?
Sorry if that's all a bit rambly. I'm just trying to get this clearer in my head, so I'm vocalising thoughts a bit here. I realise there's a lot to cover in this one post.
Thanks

Comment